Molten Influence rule clarity please
Asked by Not_Sure 9 years ago
Molten Influence - unless its controller has Molten Influence deal 4 damage to him or her.
What does "has Molten Influence" mean exactly?
In the deck my opponent is using? In a time capsule buried somewhere?
Also, if the damage aspect is activated, would it be able to target the opponent or a Planeswalker?
merrowMania says... #2
The Molten Influence that it refers to is the spell itself.
Upon resolution (of Molten Influence), the controller of the targeted instant or sorcery has a choice to take 4 damage. You, as the controller of Molten Influence then get to choose if the damage will be redirected (but only after your opponent declares that he/she will take the damage). Also note that the damage does not target the opponent nor the planeswalker.
Epochalyptik says... Accepted answer #1
You're only reading half the clause. The effect isn't talking about your opponent owning the card.
"has Molten Influence deal 4 damage to him or her" is one option. "Counter target instant or sorcery spell" is the other option. Your opponent chooses which one happens.
Next, the damage isn't activated. Only activated abilities are activated. The damage in this case is just an effect of the spell.
It also doesn't target anything. The damage is dealt to the player who controls the targeted instant or sorcery spell. Now, because it's non-combat damage and because you control the source, you may choose to redirect this damage to a planeswalker that player controls instead. You announce this choice only as the damage would be dealt; you don't have to announce your intention to redirect before the redirect is applied.
January 12, 2016 3:10 p.m.