rules question
Asked by ConstantVigilance 4 years ago
I don't know if this is a dumb question or not but anyways:
For example, if I cast a spell that says "For the rest of the game, permanents you control have shroud.", does that mean that all the permanents I currently control have shroud, or all permanents that I would have for the rest of the game get shroud??
A real card example would be Kardur, Doomscourge If I played Kardur on my turn and on my next opponent's first main phase, they played a creature with haste, does that creature have to attack? or if they had a vehicle and used it to tap everything, would they have to attack with the vehicle, even if it wasn't a creature when Kardur entered the battlefield?
Omniscience_is_life says... #5
In the future, the "Rules Q&A" at the top of the page (or in the drop-down list from the three lines on mobile) is the place for this sort of question. Thanks!
April 4, 2021 9:27 p.m.
It's worth noting there's a difference between you're theoretical example and the real example. If an a spell or ability grants an ability to permanents or players (like Lazotep Plating ) it only affects permanents or players that exist when it resolves. If a spell or ability (like Kardur, Doomscourge ) changes the rules around objects, it affects objects that come into existence after it resolves.
The best example of this is the ultimate of Elspeth, Knight-Errant . When first printed, it didn't create an emblem but rather made it so permanents you control couldn't be destroyed, which was a rules change (indestructible wasn't technically a keyword at that time). This was a little confusing, as it worked very much like a keyword, which is why emblems were created and the card received errata. Interestingly, with indestructible now being a keyword, it needs to make an emblem in order to work properly.
shadow63 says... Accepted answer #3
Wotc has [gatherer] for these types of questions (https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?multiverseid=503832)
April 4, 2021 6:35 p.m.