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Invoke prejudice?

Asked by scrotality 3 years ago

Hi all

I'm prototyping out an edh deck that punishes opponents for casting creatures. One card I'm looking at is Invoke Prejudice . What happens if I have this in play but do not control any creatures when my opponent casts one?

Additionally, my general is Keranos, God of Storms . If my general is not a creature, I'm assuming Invoke Prejudice would fire in the same way as if I had no creatures right?

Thanks!

Epochalyptik says... Accepted answer #1

If you control no creatures, then it is impossible for a spell to share a color with a creature you control. Therefore, Invoke Prejudice's ability will trigger for every creature spell your opponents cast if you control no creatures.

If you control only Keranos, God of Storms, but Keranos, God of Storms is not a creature, then you necessarily do not control any creatures.

January 3, 2016 5:10 p.m.

scrotality says... #2

Ok thanks for the sanity check. I was 99% sure of that but the people that play edh at the shop aren't too up on rules interactions so I wanted to be sure lol

January 3, 2016 7:42 p.m.

Epochalyptik says... #3

In the future, please remember to select an answer to remove your question from the active queue.

January 3, 2016 7:55 p.m.

scrotality says... #4

roger that boss

January 3, 2016 10:01 p.m.

This discussion has been closed